Template Topic: Supervisory Practice And Collaborative Pract

Templatetopic Supervisory Practicecollaborative Practiceindependent

Templatetopic Supervisory Practicecollaborative Practiceindependent

Template Topic Supervisory Practice Collaborative Practice Independent Practice List the name of a State that is representative of each regulatory model. Evaluate how each model affects the NPs scope of practice? (include, if applicable, the use of protocols, formulary, written agreements, direct versus indirect supervision, referral policy, patient care, review of medical documentation, and payment reimbursement. How does model of practice serve as a barrier to access to care? Compare/contrast the prescriptive privileges of each model and example State. Compare/Contrast how each model impacts payer status for the NP. Compare/Contrast how these models may impact NP job satisfaction.

Supervisory 6: Supervisory 5: Independent 6: Collaborative 6: Independent 1: Collaborative 1: Supervisory 1: Supervisory 2: Collaborative 2: Independent 2: Independent 3: Collaborative 3: Supervisory 3: Supervisory 4: Collaborative 4: Independent 4: Independent 5: Collaborative 5:

1. The law of demand implies that: sellers will offer less on the market at lower prices. consumers will buy more at lower prices. sellers will offer more on the market at higher prices. consumers are not responsive to price changes.

2. An increase in the demand for gasoline today caused by concerns that gasoline prices will be higher tomorrow is most likely attributable to a change in: consumer preferences. consumer expectations. income. prices of other goods.

3. If the price of hamburger decreased, it would probably result in _____ in the demand for hamburger buns. random fluctuations no change an increase a decrease

4. A decrease in supply is caused by: an advancement in the technology for producing the good. an increase in the price of goods that are used in production. an increase in the number of producers. suppliers' expectations of lower prices in the future.

5. Figure: The Demand and Supply of Wheat Reference: Ref 3-6 (Figure: The Demand and Supply of Wheat) Look at the figure The Demand and Supply of Wheat. If a price of $8 temporarily exists in this market, a _____ of _____ bushels will result. surplus; 6,000 surplus; 4,000 shortage; 2,000 shortage; 4,000

6. If the market for buffalo meat is in equilibrium, the price of buffalo meat will probably _____ in the near future. decrease increase considerably increase not change

7. Figure: Four Markets for DVDs Reference: Ref 3-9 (Figure: Four Markets for DVDs) Look at the figure Four Markets for DVDs. Which of the graphs illustrates what may happen in the market for DVDs if D1 or S1 is the original curve and D2 or S2 is the new curve and if the cost of producing DVDs falls? C D A B

8. Figure: Shifts in Demand and Supply II Reference: Ref 3-11 (Figure: Shifts in Demand and Supply II) Look at the figure Shifts in Demand and Supply II. The graph shows how supply and demand might shift in response to specific events. Suppose scientists discover that eating pomegranates causes aging. Which panel BEST describes how this will affect the market for pomegranates? panel C panel B panel D panel A

9. Figure: Shifts in Demand and Supply III Reference: Ref 3-12 (Figure: Shifts in Demand and Supply III) Look at the figure Shifts in Demand and Supply III. The figure shows how supply and demand might shift in response to specific events. Suppose consumer incomes increase. Which panel BEST describes how this will affect the market for designer boots, a normal good? panel B panel C panel A panel D

10. For consumers, pizza and hamburgers are substitutes. A rise in the price of a pizza causes _____ in the equilibrium price of a hamburger and _____ in the equilibrium quantity of hamburgers. a rise; a decrease a fall; an increase a rise; an increase a fall; a decrease

11. A decrease in supply with no change in demand will lead to _____ in equilibrium quantity and _____ in equilibrium price. a decrease; a decrease an increase; an increase an increase; a decrease a decrease; an increase

12. The market for corn is in equilibrium. Which of the following is most likely to INCREASE the equilibrium price of corn? a decrease in the price of wheat, a substitute in consumption increasing production of corn-based ethanol a bountiful harvest decreasing household incomes, with corn being a normal good

13. You notice that the price of Blu-ray players falls and the quantity of Blu-ray players sold increases. You suspect that _____ Blu-ray players shifts to the _____. demand for; left. supply of; left. demand for; right. supply of; right.

14. The market for milk is initially in equilibrium. Milk producers successfully advertise to encourage milk drinking. At the same time, more milk producers enter the market. Standard demand and supply analysis tells us that: the equilibrium quantity of milk will rise, but we can't determine how the equilibrium price will be affected. the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will rise. the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will fall. the equilibrium price of milk will rise, but we can't determine how the equilibrium quantity will be affected.

15. In the local market for coffee, a normal good, the price will _____ and the quantity will _____ if new coffee shops open and consumers' incomes decrease because of a recession. decrease; be indeterminate increase; be indeterminate be indeterminate; increase be indeterminate; decrease

16. Suppose the local real estate market is in equilibrium. A recession causes local household incomes to decline. At the same time, construction of a large subdivision of new homes has just been completed. Given these two changes and assuming that real estate is a normal good, we can predict that the price of real estate will _____ and the quantity of real estate bought and sold will _____. rise; fall or rise fall; fall fall; rise or fall fall; rise

17. An ambiguous change in price and a decrease in quantity are most likely caused by: a shift to the left in supply and a shift to the right in demand. no shift in supply and a shift to the left in demand. a shift to the right in supply and a shift to the left in demand. a shift to the left in supply and a shift to the left in demand.

18. Figure: Supply, Demand, and Equilibrium Reference: Ref 3-18 (Figure: Supply, Demand, and Equilibrium) Look at the figure, there will be excess demand for the good at a price of P3. True False

19. Good X and good Y are related goods. Holding everything else constant, if the price of X decreases and the demand for Y increases, X and Y are probably: inferior. substitutes. normal. complements.

20. Holding all other things constant, if ramen noodles are an inferior good to Vanessa, then as her income increases, her demand curve for ramen noodles: may shift left or right, but we're not sure by how much. will shift left. will shift right. will not shift at all.

21. Reference: Ref 3-19 (Table: Competitive Market for Good Z) Look at the table, if the supply curve for good Z is linear, it can be expressed as: Qs = 100 – 2P. Qs = 50 – 2P. Qs = Qd Qs = 3P.

22. When a market is in equilibrium, the quantity: demanded is equal to zero. demanded is greater than quantity supplied. supplied is zero. demanded is equal to quantity supplied.

23. Suppose people expect the price of MP3 players to rise next year. As a result of this expectation, people will most likely: purchase fewer MP3 players this year. purchase the same amount of MP3 players, since this expectation will have no effect on consumers this year. decide to wait and purchase the MP3 players next year. observe higher prices for MP3 players this year.

24. Because of an increase in the price of wheat, an important ingredient in the production of bread, combined with an increase in the number of people consuming bread: equilibrium price will increase, but equilibrium quantity may decrease, increase, or stay the same. both the equilibrium price and quantity will decrease. both the equilibrium price and quantity will increase. equilibrium quantity will decrease, but equilibrium price may decrease, increase, or stay the same.

25. In an economy with no taxes or imports, if the marginal propensity to save decreases, the marginal propensity to consume will: fluctuate randomly. increase. decrease. remain constant.

26. In an economy with no taxes and no imports, disposable income increases from $2,000 to $3,000. If consumption increases from $1,500 to $2,100, the marginal propensity to consume is: 0.50. $600. 0.60. 0.71.

27. If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.5, the multiplier is: 1. 0.5. 2. 5.

28. If the marginal propensity to save is 0.5, the multiplier is: 5. 1. 0.5. 2.

29. Reference: Ref 11-2 (Table: Individual and Aggregate Consumption Functions) Look at the table, which of the following represents Fred's individual consumption function? C = 0.80YD C = 100 + 0.5YD C = 150 + 0.8YD C = 100 + 0.7YD

30. The most important determinant of consumer spending is: the government budget deficit or surplus. the price of gasoline. the trade deficit. disposable income.

31. In the consumption function, an individual household's consumer spending: is positively related to its current disposable income. is negatively related to its autonomous consumption and its marginal propensity to consume. is positively related to the interest rate. is determined by the accelerator principle.

32. If other things are equal, expectations of lower disposable income would _____ and shift the consumption function _____. increase autonomous consumption; up increase the marginal propensity to consume; up decrease autonomous consumption; down decrease the marginal propensity to consume; down

33. The level of productive capacity _____ planned investment spending. has no effect on varies directly with is negatively related to is positively related to

34. Inventory investment is: not a part of investment spending, as it can't be properly planned. a part of unplanned investment spending and may either be positive or negative. a part of planned investment spending and is always positive. a part of consumption spending, as these are unsold goods.

35. An increase in the expected disposable income of households _____ the planned aggregate spending line. shifts down increases the slope of shifts up decreases the slope of

36. Figure: Aggregate Expenditures Curve I Reference: Ref 11-16 (Figure: Aggregate Expenditures Curve I) Look at the figure, the equilibrium level of real GDP in the aggregate expenditures model shown in this figure is: $1,000. $3,200. $1,600. $800.

37. The marginal propensity to save is the increase in household savings when investment spending increases by $1. True False

38. In an economy with no taxes or imports, if disposable income decreases by $2,000 and consumption decreases by $1,400, the multiplier is 7. False True

39. A decrease in consumer spending is likely to be caused by: expectation of a decrease in personal income taxes. expectation of an increase in personal income taxes. an increase in investment spending. an increase in the multiplier.

40. If the stock of physical capital increases, all other things unchanged, the aggregate demand curve will: shift to the left. remain constant. become positively sloped. shift to the right.

41. Aggregate demand will increase if: the public becomes more optimistic. government spending is reduced. the aggregate price level falls. household wealth decreases.

42. Suppose the equilibrium aggregate price level and the equilibrium level of real GDP are both rising. This is probably the effect of a(n) _____ in aggregate _____. decrease; demand decrease; supply increase; supply increase; demand

43. Figure: Policy Alternatives Reference: Ref 12-9 (Figure: Policy Alternatives) Look at the figure, suppose that the initial equilibrium is at real GDP level Y1 and price level P2 in panel (a). At real GDP level Y1 there is: a recessionary gap. long-run equilibrium. no gap. an inflationary gap.

44. Figure: Policy Alternatives Reference: Ref 12-9 (Figure: Policy Alternatives) Look at the figure, suppose that the economy depicted in panel (a) is in short-run equilibrium with AD1 and SRAS1. If the economy is left to correct itself: lower wages will result in a gradual shift from SRAS1 to SRAS2. long-run equilibrium will be established at YP and P3. real interest rates will fall, which will shift SRAS rightward. the aggregate demand curve will shift leftward.

45. An inflationary gap is automatically closed by _____ wages that shift the SRAS curve _____. rising; leftward falling; rightward falling; leftward rising; rightward

46. Figure: Policy Alternatives Reference: Ref 12-16 (Figure: Policy Alternatives) Look at the figure, suppose that the economy is in equilibrium at Y1 in panel (a) and the government does not intervene, the result will likely be: a shift of LRAS to the left. no change in AD or SRAS. a shift of SRAS1 to SRAS2. a shift of AD1 to the left.

47. The interest rate effect states that as the aggregate price level rises, holding everything else constant, people demand _____ money, which drives the interest rate _____ and investment _____. less; down; up more; up; down more; down; down less; up; down

48. The AD curve will shift to the left: if the aggregate price level falls. if the government decreases taxes paid by households. if household wealth decreases. because of the wealth and interest rate effects.

49. An increase in the prices of goods in the short run will: decrease producers' profit per unit. increase producers' profit per unit. reduce output. lead to a movement along the AD curve.

50. Sticky wages and prices occur: in the short run. in the long run. in both the short and long run. only when the economy is operating above its potential real GDP.

51. In the short run, when there is an increase in aggregate demand, the aggregate price level will _____ and the aggregate output level will _____. rise; rise fall; rise fall; fall rise; fall

52. A negative supply shock often results in: a drop in the unemployment level. an increase in the aggregate price level and a decrease in aggregate output. a leftward shift of the AD curve. no change in the price level.

53. Which of the following is NOT an example of government purchases of goods and services? a surgeon's bill reimbursed under the Medicare program a federal prosecutor's salary new pavement for interstate highway I-95 equipping U.S. air marshals with electroshock weapons

54. Figure: Short-Run Equilibrium Reference: Ref 13-1 (Figure: Short-Run Equilibrium) Look at the figure, if the economy is at equilibrium at Y1 and P1, the appropriate policy to return the economy to potential output would be a(n): increase in government spending. decrease in taxes. increase in transfer payments. increase in taxes.

55. Expansionary fiscal policy shifts the aggregate demand curve to the _____ and is used to close a(n) _____ gap. right; recessionary left; recessionary right; inflationary left; inflationary

56. Figure: Fiscal Policy Choices Reference: Ref 13-7 (Figure: Fiscal Policy Choices) Look at the figure, if the government uses discretionary fiscal policy for the economy in panel (a) when real GDP is Y1, government spending is likely to be _____ and taxes are likely to be _____. reduced; cut reduced; increased increased; increased increased; cut

57. Figure: AD–AS Reference: Ref 13-9 (Figure: AD–AS) Look at the figure, consider an economy that is producing an output level of Y1. The economy has a(n) _____ gap, which can be closed by _____ fiscal policy. inflationary; expansionary recessionary; contractionary recessionary; expansionary inflationary; contractionary

58. Suppose the government increases spending more than is necessary to close a recessionary gap. What is the most likely result? The price level will decline. Inflation will increase. The equilibrium real GDP will fall short of potential GDP. The equilibrium real GDP will fall.

59. Which of the following is an automatic stabilizer? disability payments to war veterans military spending Medicare payments unemployment compensation payments

60. Most economists believe that a balanced budget requirement would: undermine the role of taxes and transfers as automatic stabilizers. enhance the effect of automatic stabilizers. strengthen the ability of policy makers to conduct discretionary fiscal policy. not have any impact on the role of taxes and transfers as automatic stabilizers.

61. The stability pact signed in 1999 by the European nations that adopted the euro required each country to: supply a certain amount of euros each year. keep its actual budget deficit below 3% of its GDP. balance its budget annually. keep its cyclically balanced budget below 3% of its GDP.

62. Real GDP equals $200 billion, the government collects 20% of any increase in real GDP in the form of taxes, and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8. What is the value of the expenditure multiplier? 2.

63. Fiscal policy is the use of taxes, government transfers, or government purchases to shift the aggregate demand curve. True False

64. Medicaid, food stamps, and sales taxes are all automatic stabilizers. True False

65. A fiscal year for the federal government runs from January 1 to December 31. False True

66. Social insurance is: available only when the economy is below the full employment level. essentially any type of spending by the federal government. a government program designed to protect individuals or families from economic hardship. available only when the economy is in an inflation.

67. When the government decreases spending, the: government debt will increase. budget balance will move toward a deficit. SRAS curve will shift to the left. AD curve will shift to the left.

Paper For Above instruction

The complex landscape of nursing practice models significantly influences the scope of practice, autonomy, and access to healthcare services delivered by nurse practitioners (NPs). The primary models—supervisory, collaborative, and independent—each reflect different regulatory environments within various states, impacting prescriptive privileges, reimbursement, job satisfaction, and barriers to care.

Regulatory Models and State Examples

Supervisory models often dominate in states like California, requiring formal oversight by a physician, which limits NP autonomy. For instance, California mandates a collaborative agreement that controls prescriptive rights and defines supervision parameters. Conversely, states like Texas exemplify independent practice models, allowing NPs to evaluate, diagnose, and